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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.
Topic 2	Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.
Topic 3	Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q20-Q25):

NEW QUESTION # 20
A service provider is reviewing its release management practice. It has been found that most releases meet their objectives and are delivered on time. However, teams and organizations using the service provider's services are complaining that sometimes software updates interrupt their work during peak business hours.
What should the service provider do to improve the release management practice by applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle?

A. Optimize the practice for the value streams
B. Ensure an excellent user experience
C. Review the effectiveness of release models
D. Do not overcomplicate the practice

Answer: B

Explanation:
The 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle in ITIL 4 emphasizes working with stakeholders to ensure transparency and alignment with their needs. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document advises:"Applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' principle involves working closely with stakeholders, such as service consumers, to understand their needs and ensure releases do not disrupt their operations, thereby ensuring an excellent user experience"(Section 5.1).
* The issue is that updates interrupt work during peak hours, indicating a lack of collaboration with users to understand their schedules and needs.
* Option A (Ensure an excellent user experience) directly addresses this by implying collaboration with users to schedule releases at non-disruptive times, aligning with the principle.
* Option B (Review the effectiveness of release models) is an internal activity and doesn't directly involve collaboration with stakeholders.
* Option C (Optimize the practice for the value streams) focuses on value stream efficiency but doesn't specifically address user collaboration.
* Option D (Do not overcomplicate the practice) is unrelated to the collaboration principle.
The correct answer is A, as ensuring an excellent user experience through collaboration directly applies the principle to address the issue.

NEW QUESTION # 21
An organization manually checks that releases of new or changed products/services have been successfully completed. Which tools should be used to automate this process?

A. Monitoring and event management tools
B. Enterprise architecture tools
C. Analysis and reporting tools
D. Workflow management and collaboration tools

Answer: A

Explanation:
Automating the verification of release success involves tracking the performance and stability of the released services. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Monitoring and event management tools can automate the verification of release success by tracking system performance and detecting anomalies post-release, ensuring the release meets its objectives"(Section 4.2).
* Option A (Monitoring and event management tools) is correct, as these tools can automatically check system health and performance after a release, replacing manual checks.
* Option B (Workflow management and collaboration tools) focuses on process coordination, not post- release verification.
* Option C (Enterprise architecture tools) is used for dependency mapping, not release verification.
* Option D (Analysis and reporting tools) provides retrospective insights but doesn't automate real-time verification.
The correct answer is A, as monitoring tools are best suited for automating release verification.

NEW QUESTION # 22
Which is a key input to the release planning and coordination process?

A. Updates to the continual improvement register
B. Documented findings on the success of a release
C. Details about the users who will be affected
D. Notifications to stakeholders about the release status

Answer: C

Explanation:
The release planning and coordination process in ITIL 4 Release Management requires inputs toensure effective planning and execution of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument specifies:"Key inputs to release planning and coordination include details about the users who will be affected, as this helps in scheduling and communicating the release to minimize disruption"(Section 3.2.1).
* Option A (Documented findings on the success of a release) is an output of a release evaluation, not an input to planning.
* Option B (Updates to the continual improvement register) may inform long-term improvements but isn' t a direct input to planning a specific release.
* Option C (Details about the users who will be affected) is a critical input, as understanding the user base helps tailor the release schedule, communication, and impact mitigation strategies.
* Option D (Notifications to stakeholders about the release status) is an output of the release process, not an input to planning.
The correct answer is C, as user details are essential for effective release planning and coordination.

NEW QUESTION # 23
A release manager has decided on a policy of not allowing users to choose to accept software updates. What is this an example of?

A. A 'pull' approach
B. Continuous integration
C. Continuous delivery
D. A 'push' approach

Answer: D

Explanation:
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains the difference between push and pull approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates" (Section 3.2.3).
* Option A (A 'pull' approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.
* Option B (A 'push' approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.
* Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn't specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).
The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 24
A large organization is adjusting its IT organizational structure to optimize for faster, more collaborative, and less bureaucratic working practices. There is a significant number of changes and related releases that are handled by the product and project teams. What is the BEST way for the organization to position release management in the new organizational structure?

A. Appoint a release manager in every product team to coordinate and coach the team members
B. Delegate all release management responsibilities to product and project teams
C. Establish a centralized release management team to manage all releases
D. Delegate most release management responsibilities to product and project teams but appoint a release manager to coordinate and coach the teams

Answer: D

Explanation:
In a collaborative, less bureaucratic structure, release management needs to balance decentralization with oversight to ensure consistency and alignment. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument advises:"In organizations adopting collaborative practices, release management responsibilities can be delegated to product and project teams to enable faster decision-making, but a release manager should be appointed to coordinate and coach the teams, ensuring consistency and adherence to standards"(Section
3.3.2).
* Option A (Centralized team) contradicts the goal of reducing bureaucracy and enabling faster, collaborative practices.
* Option B (Delegate all responsibilities) risks inconsistency and lack of oversight, which can lead to uncoordinated releases.
* Option C (Delegate most responsibilities but appoint a release manager to coordinate and coach) balances decentralization with oversight, aligning with the goal of faster, collaborative practices while maintaining consistency.
* Option D (Appoint a release manager in every team) is overly resource-intensive and may lead to fragmented approaches across teams.
The correct answer is C, as it best supports the new organizational structure while ensuring effective release management.

NEW QUESTION # 25
......

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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Latest Learning Materials & Valid ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Test Materials

2025 ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Latest Learning Materials Free PDF | Professional Valid ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Test Materials: ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam

Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q20-Q25):

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